I am in the process of preparing some course material on the Fourth Gospel and have been wrestling with the relationship between John and the Synoptics. I found this taxonomy helpful:
- John wrote a spiritual Gospel to interpret or harmonize the other Gospels (Clement of Alexandria, Eusebius).
- John intended to displace the Synoptics (e.g. Windish)
- John is essentially independent of the Synoptics (Dodd, Gardner-Smith)
- John has access to Synoptic-like material (Bultmann)
- John has Synoptic and non-Synoptic sources (Neirynck)
- John knew Mark and had to cater to public knowledge of Mark (Bauckham)
- John rewrites the Synoptics along the lines of midrash or reinterpretation (Brodie)
See further: MacKay, Ian D. 2004. John’s Relationship with Mark (WUNT 2.128; Tübingen: Mohr/Siebeck).
Following up on Bauckham's proposal, to what extent do John 1.32, 3.24, 6.70, and 11.1-2 presuppose or clarify Mark? Or do they simply reflect common knowledge about Jesus and his ministry?
